Hi CONN Users,

I have question regarding interpretation of a seed-based correlation result. 
I am looking at resting state differences between a psychiatric population (n=20) and control group (n=20). For the second level analysis contrast I set the psychiatric population to -1 and the control to 1, while controlling for age, sex and motion. 
The results from the seed based analysis of the amygdala (on both left and right amygdala ROIs, when ran separately) only show the seed itself as a negative correlation. It seems odd for it to only be correlated with itself.
I am not sure what this is interpreted as, whether I should consider it an artifact relative to false anti-correlations resulting from denoising or if in fact the amygdala might just be more correlated with itself in the psychiatric population, unilaterally compared to controls.
Also, to be noted, there was no significant difference in motion between the two groups. 

Any input would be helpful. 

Thank you! 

Jamie