Dear expert, 

I would like to use a continuous predictor (%female) that varies across studies with a one group design (only healthy controls) to predict SDM-Z values using meta-regression. 

If I do this, I get three SDM-maps, which one do I have to interpet in this case: 1_,z 0_z or 1m0_z? Or is this analysis not possible with SDM? 

Thanks in advance for taking your time to answer this question.

Dear Jorge,

The map "1m0" reflects the slope of the meta-regression, i.e. whether brain response depends on the percentage of females.

With the best wishes,

Joaquim

Thank you Joaquim.